Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
15.06.2025 00:47
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
You'll usually find your answer there.
Would the word literate carry the same meaning with public (common wealth) in 1900 vs today 2020?
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
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While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
There's no rule.
What is the rudest/meanest thing a family member has said to you?
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.